Chapter-Recombinant DNA Technology

Important MCQ-Based Questions for CUET Biotechnology chapter-Recombinant DNA Technology

This page consists of Important MCQ questions from the chapter-Recombinant DNA Technology uploaded as per the CUET syllabus and consists of a detailed explanation. Questions are prepared from the entire chapter-Recombinant DNA Technology to give you effective revision. 

Find below MCQ-Based Questions for CUET Biotechnology chapter-Recombinant DNA Technology

Important MCQ-based questions Biotechnology CUET chapter-Recombinant DNA Technology Set-A

Biotechnology - MCQ on Recombinant DNA Technology

Q.1. Alkaline phosphatase

(a) Removes a phosphate group from the 5’-end of a DNA molecule

(b) Removes a phosphate group from the 3’-end of a DNA molecule

(c) Adds a phosphate group to the 5’-end of a DNA molecule

(d) Adds a phosphate group to the 3’-end of a DNA molecule

Answer:

(a) Ligation absolutely requires the presence of a 5’ phosphate group at the DNA site to be ligated. If this phosphate group is removed, this DNA cannot be ligated. Alkaline phosphatase is an enzyme used to remove the phosphate group from the 5’ end of a DNA molecule, leaving a free 5’ hydroxyl group. Thus DNA cannot be ligated and this prevents self-annealing. So, the other three options are wrong.

Q.2. In which process the electric current of high voltage is applied to transfer foreign DNA

(a) Transformation

(b) Biolistics

(c) Microinjection

(d) Electroporation

Answer:

(d) The application of electric current to a living surface (as the skin or plasma membrane of a cell) in order to open pores or channels through which a biologic material may pass (as a drug or DNA) is called electroporation. Biolistic is another method of gene delivery, which uses high-pressure helium gas to blast microscopic particles of gold coated with the material of interest into skin tissue. So, the option b is wrong. Transformation is also an approach used to introduce recombinant DNA into the host cell. But in this process the host cells take up DNA from their surrounding environment. So, the option a is wrong. Microinjection is the injection of DNA using a very fine needle into a cell. So, the option c is also wrong.

Q.3. The first organism to be used as a host for recombinant DNA was

 

(a) Staphylococcus aureus.

 

(b) Serratia marcescens.

 

(c) Treponema pallidum.

 

(d) Escherichia coli.

Answer:

(d) This bacteria can be grown easily and its genetics are comparatively (of another three) simple and easily-manipulated, making it one of the best-studied prokaryotic model organisms, and an important species in biotechnology.

The work of Stanley Norman Cohen and Herbert Boyer in E. coli, using plasmids and restriction enzymes to create recombinant DNA, became a foundation of biotechnology.

Q.4. During polymerase chain reaction, what happens

(a) Synthesis of mRNA from DNA

(b) Multiple copies of DNA fragment

(c) Translation of mRNA into proteins

(d) Duplication of DNA

Answer:

(b) In this reaction several copies of genes of interest can be synthesized “in vitro” using two sets of primers and the enzyme DNA polymerase. Transcription involves synthesis of mRNA from DNA. Translation involves synthesis of proteins from mRNA. Duplication of DNA occurs in cell division. So, the other three options are wrong.

Q.5. Identify the pair of enzymes, which are necessary to make recombinant DNA

(a) DNA polymerase and ligase

(b) Ligase and restriction enzyme

(c) Restriction enzyme and DNA polymerase

(d) DNA polymerase and RNA polymerase

Answer:

(b) Restriction enzymes are enzymes, which recognize a specific, short sequence of DNA and cut the DNA at that point. Different restriction enzymes recognize and cut different sequences. Restriction enzymes are a vital tool in genetics, since they allow cutting (and pasting) of DNA. Ligase is an enzyme, which can connect a DNA backbone. We rely on the sticky ends left from restriction enzyme cuts to line two pieces of DNA up, but the ligase is necessary to form the covalent bonds, which form the sugar-phosphate backbone.

Q.6. Bacteria containing recombinant plasmids are usually identified in rDNA technology by

(a) Exposing the bacteria to an antibiotic that kills all cells not carrying a recombinant plasmid

(b) Analyzing the DNA from each bacterial cell with restriction enzymes

(c) The microscopic examination of the cells

(d) Using antibiotics that only adhere to bacteria containing recombinant plasmid

Answer:

(a) The simplest method for identifying the Transformants relies on the presence of an antibiotic resistance gene on the plasmid vector, for example ampicillin resistance gene. If the host cells transformed with this plasmid are grown on a medium containing ampicillin, only those cells which contain this plasmid will be able to grow and form colonies.

Q.7. In order to join a fragment of human DNA to bacterial DNA, both the human DNA and the bacterial DNA must be first treated with the same

(a) DNA ligase

(b) DNA polymerase

(c) Restriction endonuclease

(d) Alkaline phosphatase

Answer:

(c) Both the human DNA and the bacterial DNA must be first treated with the same restriction endonuclease, because the restriction site and recognition sequence is same restriction enzyme is same in both the organisms; by which they can join together.

Q.8. Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP) techniques are useful in:

(a) Isolating a gene whose location and function are already known

(b) Prenatal diagnosis of certain genetic defects if the nucleotide sequence of the gene is known

(c) Providing DNA for PCR analysis

(d) DNA fingerprinting in forensic science

Answer:

(b) RFLP technique is based on the observation that there are variations in the DNA sequence of different individuals and even in same individual having genetic defects. In a DNA sample there are various restriction sites that can be recognized and digested by restriction enzymes. When the DNA sample is digested by the restriction enzyme, DNA fragments of varying lengths will be generated depending upon the length of the position of these sites on the DNA. If the DNA sequence of one or more than one of these sites is changed in a DNA sample from another, digestion of that sequence by the same restriction enzymes will generate different number and different size sequences.

Q.9. Plasmids:

(a) Are used to insert foreign DNA into bacteria

(b) Are necessary for cellular respiration in bacteria

(c) Are where protein synthesis occurs in bacteria

(d) Are found in the blood of bacteria

Answer:

(a) Plasmids are independent, free-floating circular piece of DNA in a bacterium, capable of making copies of itself in the host cell. Plasmids are used in recombinant DNA experiments to clone genes from other organisms by inserting the foreign DNA into itself and make large quantities of their DNA.

Q.10. A cell or organism that contains foreign DNA inserted into its own genetic material is termed as

(a) Foreign

(b) Engineered

(c) Polygenic

(d) Transgenic

Answer:

(d) Transgenic is an organism, which has a foreign gene (a transgene) incorporated into its genome or is an organism that has incorporated a functional foreign gene through recombinant DNA technology. The novel gene exists in all of its cells and is passed through to progeny.

Q.11. Which antibiotic resistant gene is present in normal E.coli

(a) Ampicillin

(b) Tetracycline

(c) Chloramphenicol

(d) For no antibiotics

Answer:

(d) Normal E.coli cells do not carry genes that are resistant to antibiotics. It is due to this that E.coli cells are suitable as selectable markers for biotechnological synthesis of antibiotics.

Q.12. Genetic engineering is possible because

(a) We can cut DNA at specific sites by endonucleases like DNAase I

(b) We can see DNA by electron microscope

(c) The phenomenon of transduction in bacteria is well understood

(d) Restriction endonucleases purified from bacteria can be used in vitro

Answer:

(d) Restriction enzymes are used in genetic engineering because they can be used in vitro to recognize and cleave within specific DNA sequences.

Q.13. Two microbes useful in recombinant DNA technology are

(a) Vibria cholerae and a bacteriophage

(b) Diplococcus sp. and Pseudomonas sp.

(c) Escherichia coli and Agrobacterium tumefaciens

(d) Agrobacterium tumefaciens and Coenorhabditis elegans

Answer:

(c) Escherichia coli can be grown easily and its genetics are comparatively simple and easily manipulated, making it one of the best-studied prokaryotic model organisms, and an important species in recombinant DNA technology.

Agrobacterium tumefaciens is known as the natural genetic engineer of plants. Its Ti plasmid is used as vector to transfer foreign genes of interest into the target plant cells.

Q.14. Restriction endonucleases are most widely used in recombinant DNA technology. They are obtained from

(a) Bacteriophage

(b) Bacterial cells

(c) Plasmids

(d) All prokaryotic cells

Answer:

(b) Restriction endonucleases are obtained from bacterial cells. These enzymes exist in many bacteria where they function as apart of their defense mechanism known as restriction –modification system.

Q.15. Transfer of DNA bands from an agarose gel to a nitrocellulose or nylon membrane is referred to as

(a) Northern transfer

(b) Southern transfer

(c) Eastern transfer

(d) Western transfer

Answer:

(b) Southern blotting is a technique for transferring denatured DNA molecules that have been separated electrophoretically, from a gel to a matrix such as a nitrocellulose membrane on which a hybridization assay can be performed. In Northern blotting is transfer of RNA and in Western blotting transfer of proteins takes place.

Q.16. The introduction of base changes into a piece of DNA at a specific site, using recombinant DNA methods is called

(a) Site-directed mutagenesis

(b) Mutation

(c) Site-specific mutagenesis

(d) Transcription

Answer:

(a) Site-directed mutagenesis is a technique by which it is possible to introduce mutations at precisely determined sites of genes.

It is a powerful technique where site specific changes in DNA sequence are produced in vitro - for instance to change an amino acid residue into another by changing the codon sequence within the gene sequence. Site-specific mutagenesis is a technique to change one or more specific nucleotides within a cloned gene in order to create an altered form of a protein with one or more specific amino acid changes. a.k.a. oligonucleotide-directed mutagenesis; oligonucleotide-directed site-specific mutagenesis.

These questions consist of two statements each, given as assertion and reason. While answering these questions you are required to choose any of the following four responses.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.

C. If assertion is true but the reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

Q.17. Assertion: Recombinant DNA technology has become successful because of the presence of restriction endonucleases in eukaryotic cells.

Reason: Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA molecule to form blunt ends.

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

Answer:

(d) Both the statements are false. Restriction enzymes are found in bacterial cells not in eukaryotic cell and Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA molecule to form blunt as well as sticky ends.

Q.18. Assertion: The cut pieces of DNA are linked with plasmid DNA.

Reason: Plasmid DNA fails to act as vector.

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

Answer:

(c) This is true that the cut pieces of DNA are linked with plasmid. Plasmid acts as a vector or cloning vehicle that is why second statement is false.

Q.19. Assertion: Exonucleases remove nucleotides from the ends of DNA.

Reason: Endonucleases make cuts at specific positions within the DNA.

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

Answer:

(b) Exonucleases can remove bases only from open ends of DNA. This means, it can cut DNA at the last nucleotide at either end only.

Q.20. Assertion: Restriction enzymes exist in many bacteria.

Reason: Bacteria possess the restriction- modification system.

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

Answer:

(a)The restriction enzymes acts as foundation of rDNA technology. These enzymes are present in bacteria and provide a type of defense mechanism called the ‘Restriction- Modification system’. They normally protect the host cell by destroying foreign DNA that enters into it, such as viral DNA.

Q.21.5’ G G A T C C 3’

3’ C C T A G G 5’ is recognition sequence of

(a) EcoRI

(b) HindIII

(c) BamHI

(d) AluI

Answer:

(c) Given is the recognition sequence of BamHI.

Q.22. In pUC19, the multiple cloning sequences (MCS) is incorporated into:

(a) lacZ gene

(b) lacI gene

(c) rop gene

(d) bla gene

Answer:

(a) pUC19 possesses an ampr gene, lacZ gene (for b-galactosidase) and lacI gene (for production of repressor protein to regulate lacZ).

In pUC19, the multiple cloning sequences (MCS) is incorporated into lacZ gene without interfering the function of other genes.


 

 

Q.23. The combination of plasmid and phage lambda becomes:

(a) Bacteriophage

(b) Shuttle vector

(c) Cosmid

(d) BAC vector

Answer:

(c) Cosmid is artificially constructed cloning vector containing the cos gene of phage lambda. Cosmids can be packaged in lambda phage particles for infection into E. coli; this permits cloning of larger DNA fragments (up to 45kb) than can be introduced into bacterial hosts in plasmid vectors.

Q.24. Those vectors that have the l

Phage cos sequences, are generally packaged in vitro into specially produced empty l

Phage heads. The packaging procedure yields complete l

Particles. The strategy is called:

(a) Transformation

(b) Transfection

(c) Transduction

(d) Translation

Answer:

(b) Those vectors that have the l phage cos sequences, e.g. cosmids, phasmids and l vectors, are generally packaged in vitro into specially produced empty l phage heads. The packaging procedure yields complete l particles. These phage particles are used to infect E.coli cells; this strategy is called transfection.

Q.25. Identify the organism for which the first complete nucleotide sequence was worked out.

(a) Bacteria

(b) Yeast

(c) Virus

(d) Human

Answer:

(b) In 1965, Robert Holley and his research group at Cornell University completely sequenced nucleotides of tRNAala (tRNA for yeast alanine).

Q.26. The vectors that contain two origin of replication are called

(a) Expression vector

(b) Shuttle vector

(c) Cosmid vector

(d) Plasmid vector

Answer:

(b) Several vectors have been constructed which exist both in E.coli and eukaryotic cells. Shuttle vectors contain two types of origin of replication, one specific for each host species (E.coli and eukaryotic cells).

Q.27. A small fragment of radiolabelled DNA molecule complementary to the foreign DNA is called

(a) cDNA

(b) Palindromic DNA

(c) Oligonucleotide

(d) DNA probe

Answer:

(d) DNA Probes are small (20-50) nucleotide sequences used to detect the presence of complementary sequences in nucleic acid samples.

Q.28. Subtilisin is produced by site-directed mutagenesis, which is

(a) A plasmid

(b) A restriction enzyme

(c) An engineered protein

(d) An ubiquitous enzyme

Answer:

(c) Subtilisin is a bacterial serine-protease that can breakdown most proteins, which soil clothing and a major additive to modern 'bio' detergents. Before it became commercially useful, the recombinant protein was engineered ('improved') in order that it remained active in the presence of bleach. Bleach caused the oxidation of a methionine residue (position 222) - and the enzyme lost 90% of its activity. By replacing this amino acid with alanine, the engineered enzyme was no longer sensitive to oxidation.

Q.29. If a vector and DNA fragments are generated by using the same restriction enzyme, how can self-ligation be preventing

(a) By DNA ligase

(b) By DNA polymerase

(c) By restriction fragment length polymerase

(d) By alkaline phosphatase

Answer:

(d) Alkaline phosphataseis the enzyme that is used to prevent unwanted self-ligation of vector DNA molecule during cloning procedures. When a vector molecule is cleaved with restriction enzymes, a major problem creeps in at that same time. The cohesive ends of the vector, instead of joining with foreign DNA, often join together resulting in the recircularization of the plasmid. The alkaline phosphatase enzyme overcomes this problem.

Q.30. The Sanger’s utilizes

(a) Deoxynucleotides

(b) Oligonucleotides

(c) Dideoxynucleotides

(d) Ribonucleotides

Answer:

(c) The Sanger’s method utilizes 2’,3’-dideoxynucleoside triphosphates (ddNTPs) molecules that differ from deoxynucleotide triphosphates(dNTPs) by having a hydrogen atom attached at the 3’-carbon rather than hydroxyl group. The dideoxy method gets its name from the critical role played by synthetic nucleotides that lack the -OH at the 3′ carbon atom.

Q.31. It is required to make a large amount of one of the strand of DNA of a fragment for sequencing purpose. Suggest the strategy from the following.

(a) DNA sequencing

(b) PCR

(c) DNA fingerprinting

(d) RFLP

Answer:

(b) Through polymerase chain reaction (PCR) one can generate a large amount of one of the strand of a DNA. It generates microgram (mg) quantities of DNA copies (upto billion copies) of the desired DNA segment, present even as a single copy in the initial preparation.

Q.32. Restriction enzymes can be called

(a) Molecular probes

(b) Molecular scissors

(c) Restriction exonucleases

(d) Palindromes

Answer:

(b) Restriction enzymes cut DNA at both the antiparallel strands so that the DNA molecule is fragmented. This makes them act like molecular scissors. They first bind to the specific site of DNA and then break the sugar-phosphate backbone.

Q.33. Identify the technique on which technique DNA fingerprinting is based

(a) DNA sequencing

(b) Site-directed mutagenesis

(c) Southern Blotting

(d) RFLP and PCR

Answer:

(d) In DNA fingerprinting sample analysis and comparison can be done on the basis of RFLP (restriction fragment length polymorphism), PCR (polymerase chain reaction), STR (short tandem repeats), AFLP (amplified fragment length polymorphisms), Y-chromosome variation and mitochondrial variations.

Q.34. What is the significance of ‘ori’ region

(a) It consists of the antibiotic resistance gene

(b) It contains the multiple cloning sites.

(c) It acts as the initiation of replication

(d) It acts as the selectable marker

Answer:

(c) Bacterial chromosome is generally circular and has an origin of replication, designated as ‘Ori’. This is a specific DNA sequence. Replication starts from here and ends near to it, as the DNA is circular. For a foreign DNA to be operative in a cell, it has to be associated with the ‘Ori’ sequence. Otherwise, it cannot be cloned and will be useless.

Q.35. The plasmids, which are maintained in multiple copies per cell are

(a) Relaxed

(b) Stringent

(c) Conjugative

(d) Non- conjugative

Answer:

(a) Each plasmid is maintained in the bacterial cell at a characteristic copy number mainly due to its replication control system. In this context, the plasmids are of two types: single copy and multiple copy plasmids.

The replication control of single copy plasmids is the same as that of their bacterial host cells so that they replicate and segregate with the bacterial chromosome, which is called stringent replication. The replication control of multi copy plasmids is different from that of their bacterial host genome so that they undergo more than one replication for each replication of their host genome; which is called relaxed replication.

Q.36. A Plasmid cloning vector should contains all of the following sequences except-

(a) Origin of replication

(b) Inducible promoter

(c) Selectable marker gene

(d) Multiple cloning sites

Answer:

(b) Inducible promoter is the characteristic feature of operon where its function is to promote protein synthesis.

Q.37. Match the following-

(i) Thermus aquaticus

(A) E.coli plasmid

(ii) Bacillus thuringensis

(B) Bioinsecticides

(iii) Haemophilus influenzae

(C) Taq I

(iv) pBR322

(D) Hind III

(a) i-A, ii-C, iii-B, iv-D

(b) i-C, ii- B, iii-D, iv-A

(c) i-B, ii-B, iii- D, iv-A

(d) i-C, ii-D, iii- B, iv-A

Answer:

(b) DNA polymerase is isolated from a bacterium, Thermus aquaticus, which remain active during the high temperature induced denaturation of double stranded DNA. Bt toxin is produced by a bacterium called Bacillus thuringensis (Bt for short). Bt toxin gene has been cloned from the bacteria and been expressed in plants to provide resistance to insects. Haemophilus influenzae is the organism from which Hind III was isolated. pBR322 functions only in E.coli.

Q.38. Choose the right combination of compounds required to set up polymerase chain reaction from the following-

(a) Template DNA, two primers, dNTPs and DNA ligase

(b) Template DNA, two primers, NTPs and DNA ligase

(c) Template RNA, two primers, NTPs and DNA polymerase

(d) Template DNA, two primers, dNTPs and DNA polymerase

Answer:

(a) For the PCR, it is important to have DNA, primers, Taq polymerase, ligase, dNTPs, MgCl­2 and reaction buffer.

Q.39. Which of the following can be used for transferring the DNA into the host cells

P. Transformation

Q. Sonication

R. Transfection

S. Electroporation

(A) Only P can be used

(B) Only Q & R can be used

(C) Only Q, R & S can be used

(D) Only P, R & S can be used

Answer:

(d) Transformation, transfection and electroporation all the techniques can be used for transformation.

Q.40. Insertional inactivation is the process in which-

(a) An organ is introduced into body

(b) A protein inactivate the normal body process

(c) A recombinant DNA is inserted within the coding sequence of the enzyme.

(d) The DNA molecule is heated to a high temperature to separate the two DNA strands.

Answer:

(c) In the process of insertional inactivation, a recombinant DNA is inserted within the coding sequence of an enzyme, â-galactosidase. This results into inactivation of the enzyme.

 

Q.41. An organism manipulated using recombinant DNA techniques is called

a. bacteriophage.

b. cosmid.

c. BAC vector.

d. GMO.

Answer:

(d)

Explanation: A genetically modified organism (GMO) is an organism whose genetic material is altered using genetic engineering techniques. These techniques are commonly known as recombinant DNA technology.

Q.42. Hepatitis B vaccine is produced by

a. bacteria.

b. yeasts.

c. viruses.

d. enzymes.

Answer:

(b)

Explanation: Hepatitis B vaccine is a vaccine developed for the prevention of hepatitis B virus infection. This vaccine is produced by yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae).

Q.43. Guni is a

a. virus.

b. hormone.

c. vaccine

d. bacteria.

Answer:

(c)

Explanation. In 1997, Shantha Biotechnic Ltd. (Hyderabad) produced India’s first genetically engineered vaccine, Guni for hepatitis B virus.

Q.44. Human Genome Project was completed in

a. 5 years.

b. 7 years.

c. 13 years.

d. 17 years.

Answer:

(c)

Explanation: Human genome project or HGP was aimed to sequence all genes in the total human genome. It was completed in 13 years.

Q.45. Eve is the

a. transgenic plant.

b. transgenic animal.

c. first clone of lamb.

d. first clone baby.

Answer:

(d)

Explanation. The culmination of genetic engineering is seen in animal cloning.

The scientists of ‘Human Cloning Society’, of France, made a claim for the birth of a clone baby ‘Eve’ on 27 December 2002.

Q.46.Bacterial chromosome has an origin of replication designated as

a. Ori.

b. plasmid.

c. cosmid.

d. DNA polymerase.

Answer:

(a)

Explanation: Bacterial chromosome is generally circular and has an origin of replication, designated as ‘Ori’. This is a specific DNA sequence. Replication starts from here and ends near to it, as the DNA is circular.

Q.47.For a foreign DNA to be operative in a cell, it has to be associated with the

a. selective markers.

b. Ori.

c. BAC vector.

d. GMO.

Answer:

(b)

Explanation: Bacterial chromosome has an origin of replication, designated as ‘Ori’. For a foreign DNA to be operative in a cell, it has to be associated with the ‘Ori’ sequence. Otherwise, it cannot be cloned and will be useless.

Q.48.One of the following, generally present in bacteria and shows independent replication is

a. Ori.

b. cosmid.

c. plasmid.

d. DNA ligase.

Answer:

(c)

Explanation: Plasmids are circular pieces of DNA with closed ends. Plasmids are potentially useful tools for the multiplication of foreign genes. They are hence known as vectors.

Q.49.Molecular scissors are

a. polymerase.

b. nucleases.

c. plasmid.

d. bacterial chromosome.

Answer:

(b)

Explanation: Nucleases cut DNA at both the antiparallel strands so that the DNA molecule may be fragmented. This makes them act like molecular scissors. They first bind to the specific site of DNA and then break the sugar-phosphate backbone.

Q.50. In 1955,Arthur Cornberg and his colleagues isolated

a. DNA polymerase.

b. DNA ligase.

c. endonucleases.

d. exonucleases.

Answer:

(a)

Explanation: Arthur Cornberg and his colleagues isolated DNA polymerase in 1955. DNA polymerase forms the DNA chain during DNA replication or any other DNA synthesis process.

Q.51. In 1966 Bernerd Weiss and Charles Richardson isolated

a. DNA polymerase.

b. DNA ligase.

c. endonucleases.

d. exonucleases.

Answer:

(b)

Explanation: Bernerd Weiss and Charles Richardson isolated DNA ligase in the year 1966. DNA ligase joins cut ends of any DNA.

Q.52.Hamilton Smith, K. W. Wilcox and T. J. Kelley had isolated the first

a. DNA polymerase.

b. plasmid.

c. restriction enzymes.

d. bacterial chromosome.

Answer:

(c)

Explanation: Hamilton Smith, K. W. Wilcox and T. J. Kelley had isolated the first restriction endonuclease in the year 1968. Restriction enzymes are peculiar enzymes which cut DNA anywhere in between at specific sequences.

Q.53. One of the following that can remove bases only from open ends of DNA is

a. plasmid.

b. DNA ligase

c. endonucleases.

d. exonucleases.

Answer:

(d)

Explanation: Exonucleases can remove bases only from open ends of DNA. This means, it can cut DNA at the last nucleotide at either end only. It may have 5’ or 3’ activity. DNA polymerases can also have exonuclease activity at times.

Q.54. Restriction enzymes are also called

a. DNA ligase.

b. DNA polymerase.

c. endonucleases.

d. exonucleases.

Answer:

(c)

Explanation: Endonucleases can nick the DNA at any point in between. When derived from certain prokaryotes, they are termed restriction endonucleases because they cut DNA at ‘restricted’ sequences only.

Q.55. Plasmids are

a. selective marker.

b. cosmid.

c. present in eukaryotes .

d. vectors.

Answer:

(d)

Explanation: Plasmids are potentially useful tools for the multiplication of foreign genes. They are hence also known as vectors.

Q.56.The endonucleases that cleaves DNA only with specific nucleotide sequences are called

a. polymerase.

b. ligase.

c. restriction enzymes.

d. vectors.

Answer:

(c)

Explanation: Many endonucleases cleave DNA molecules at random sites, but a class of endonucleases cleaves DNA only within or near those sites, which have specific nucleotide sequences; are called restriction endonucleases or restriction enzymes.

Q.57.The restriction enzymes are present in

a. bacteria.

b. fungi.

c. viruses.

d. transgenic plants.

Answer:

(a)

Explanation: The restriction enzymes act as foundation of rDNA technology. These enzymes are present in bacteria (prokaryotes) and provide a type of defense mechanism called the ‘Restriction- Modification system’.

Q.58.Restriction- modification type of defense mechanism is found in

a. bacteriophage.

b. DNA ligase.

c. bacteria.

d. vectors.

Answer:

(c)

Explanation: Restriction enzymes provide a type of defense mechanism called the ‘Restriction- Modification system’. They normally protect the host cell by destroying foreign DNA (such as viral DNA) that enters into it.

Q.59. In the nomenclature of restriction enzymes, the first letter of the name represents

a. genus.

b. species.

c. strain.

d. serial number.

Answer:

(a)

Explanation: The first letter of the name represents the genus of the bacterium from where it is derived. The next two letters denote the species of the bacterium. E.g., BamHI is derived from Bacillus amyloliquefaciens.

Q.60. In the nomenclature of restriction enzymes, after the first letterthe next two letters denote

a. genus.

b. species.

c. strain.

d. serial number.

Answer:

(b)

Explanation: The next two letters after first letter denote the species of the bacterium. E.g., BamHI is derived from Bacillus amyloliquefaciens. The next letter in upper case represents the strain of the bacterium. E.g., EcoRI is derived from the R-strain of E. coli.

Q.61. Agrobacterium tumefaciens is also known as

a. natural protein engineer.

b. natural genetic engineer.

c. natural recombinant engineer.

d. natural biological engineer.

Answer:

(b)

Explanation.This bacterium is also known as natural genetic engineer of plants due to its natural ability of DNA transfer. Gene transfer through Agrobacterium is achieved by its co- culture with tissue explants

Q.62. Palindromic sequences are recognized by

a. polymerase.

b. restriction enzymes.

c. ligase.

d. vectors.

Answer:

(b)

Explanation: Palindromic sequences are recognized by restriction endonucleases. The enzyme either cuts DNA at exactly middle position of the sequence or at two further ends of the sequences in two strands.

Q.63.In electrophoresis, the gel is made up of

a. agarose.

b. sucrose.

c. lactose.

d. glucose.

Answer:

(a)

Explanation: Electrophoresis is done generally in a solid support provided by a gel. The gel is made up of agarose. Electrodes connected to the gel provide current. DNA being slightly negative will migrate towards the positive electrode.

Q.64.Agrobacterium tumefacienstransfers

a. T-DNA.

F- DNA.

F-plasmids.

R-Plasmids.

Answer:

(a)

Explanation.Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a natural genetic engineer of plant that has the natural ability to transfer T-DNA of its plasmid.

Q.65. Ethidium bromide is a/an

a. molecular scissor.

b. cytoplasmic stain.

c. fluorescent dye.

d. expression vector.

Answer:

(c)

Explanation: Ethidium bromide is a fluorescent dye used for staining any nucleic acid (DNA or RNA).

Q.66. RFLP is

a. restriction fragment length polymorphism.

b. recombination fragment loss polymorphism.

c. restriction fragment length polynucleotide.

d. recombination fragment loss polynucleotide.

Answer:

(a)

Explanation: Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP) is a variation in the DNA sequence of a genome that can be detected by breaking the DNA into pieces with restriction enzymes and analyzing the size of the resulting fragments by gel electrophoresis.

Q.67.Agrobacterium tumefaciens consists of

a. F-plasmids.

b. T-Plasmids.

c. Ti-plasmids.

d. R-plasmids

Answer:

(c)

Explanation. Agrobacterium tumefaciens consists of Ti-plasmid, which is directly responsible for tumour induction. Transfer of small DNA segment (T-DNA) from Ti- plasmid and its integration into host genome, induces tumour formation in plants.

Q.68.One of the following, which is usedto prevent unwanted self-ligation of vector DNA molecule during cloning procedures is

a. alkaline phosphatase.

b. DNA polymerase.

c. restriction endonuclease.

d. DNA ligase.

Answer:

(a)

Explanation: The cohesive ends of the vector, instead of joining with foreign DNA, often join together resulting in the recircularization of the plasmid. The alkaline phosphatase enzyme overcomes this problem.

Q.69. The most commonly used vector is

a. Bacillus thuringiensis.

b. Eichhornia crassipes.

c. Agrobacterium tumefaciens.

d. Lamium purpureum

Answer:

(c)

Explanation. Agrobacterium tumefaciens bacteria is also known as natural genetic engineer of plants due to its natural ability of DNA transfer.

Q.70. The bacteria that is also known as natural genetic engineer of plants is

a. A. tumefaciens.

b. b. coagulans.

c. b. thuringiensis

d. Staphylococcus.

Answer:

(a)

Explanation: Agrobacterium tumefaciens bacterium is also known as natural genetic engineer of plants due to its natural ability of DNA transfer.

Q.71. In HaeIII, the III is indicates

a. strain.

b. group number of discovery.

c. species.

d. serial number of discovery.

Answer:

(d)

Explanation: The Roman numbers indicate the serial number of discovery of the enzyme from that particular strain. E.g., HaeIII is the third restriction enzyme isolated from Haemophilus aegyptius.

Q.72.Agarose is

a. soluble in water.

b. not soluble in water.

c. restriction enzyme.

d. bacterial chromosome.

Answer:

(b)

Explanation: Electrophoresis is done generally in a solid support provided by a gel. The gel is made up of agarose. It is not soluble in water, but it will dissolve in boiling water and then settle as a jelly-like solid as water-cools.

Q.73. Agrobacterium tumefaciens consists of Ti-plasmid, which is directly responsible for

a. growth inhibition.

b. tumour induction.

c. protoplasm fusion.

d. micropropagation.

Answer:

(b)

Explanation.Agrobacterium tumefaciens consists of Ti-plasmid, which is directly responsible for tumour induction. Transfer of small DNA segment (T-DNA) from Ti plasmid and its integration into host genome induces tumour formation in plants.

Q.74.Enzyme that seals nick between adjacent nucleotides

a. T1 DNA ligase.

b. T2 DNA ligase.

c. T3 DNA ligase.

d. T4 DNA ligase.

Answer:

(d)

Explanation: DNA Ligase seals nicks between adjacent nucleotides in a double-stranded DNA molecule. T4 DNA ligase is the enzyme that is used most often in cloning experiment, which is encoded by phage T4.

Q.75. The carriers of the desired gene are called

a. vectors.

b. DNA probes.

c. Taq polymerase.

d. restriction enzymes.

Answer:

(a)

Explanation: Vectors are carriers of the gene to be inserted into a cell. They are vehicles of gene transfer. A vector is efficient when it can transfer the gene of interest without alteration of its size and effect to the target cell.

Q.76. Bacteriophage can be used as

a. polylinker.

b. vector.

c. restriction enzymes.

d. DNA probe.

Answer:

(b)

Explanation: Bacteriophage is a virus, which attacks bacteria and infects them by inserting their DNA into it. The DNA if manipulated with foreign genes can be inserted into bacterial host.

Q.77. Selectable markers are present in the

a. plasmid.

b. bacteriophage.

c. DNA ligase.

d. restriction enzymes.

Answer:

(a)

Explanation: Plasmids are extra-chromosomal, self-replicating circular double stranded DNA molecules that often confer traits like antibiotics resistance or toxins.

Q.78. For large-scale production of DNA, the DNA should be linked to a/an

a. plasmid.

b. cosmid.

c. DNA ligase.

d. Ori.

Answer:

(d)

Explanation: Origin of replication or ‘Ori’ is the sequence from where replication starts. A DNA with ‘Ori’ linked to it can control the number of DNA replicas. So, for large-scale production of DNA, it should be linked to an ‘Ori’ with high copy number.

Q.79.Vectors contain unique recognition sites for several restriction enzymes, these sites are called

a. cDNA.

b. MCS.

c. RLFP.

d. BAC vector.

Answer:

(b)

Explanation: The vector must contain atleast a unique recognition site for restriction enzyme, when the desired foreign DNA should be inserted. Presence of multiple cloning site (MCS) or polylinker provides flexibility in the choice of restriction enzymes that can be used in cloning.

Q.80.tetr and ampr genes are found in

a. pUC 19.

b. pBR322.

c. bacteriophage.

d. YAC.

Answer:

(b)

Explanation: pBR322 has two selectable markers (tetracycline, tetr and ampicillin, ampr, resistance genes), and only single or unique recognition site for 12 different restriction enzymes (two, PstI and PvuI, located within the ampr gene, and 4, BamHI, SalI, etc., within tetr gene).

Q.81. Conjugative plasmids have

a. low copy number.

b. low molecular weight.

c. multiple copies per cell.

d. low density.

Answer:

(a)

Explanation: Plasmids can be put into two major classes:

1. Conjugative plasmids are of high molecular weight and have low copy number (1-3/chromosome).

2. Non-conjugative plasmids are smaller and exist in multiple copies per cell.

Q.82. The bacterial plasmid that contain genes that code for bacteriocins is

a. R plasmid.

b. Degradative plasmid.

c. Virulence plasmid.

d. Col plasmid.

Answer:

(d)

Explanation: Col plasmid contains genes that code for bacteriocins, which are the proteins that can kill other bacteria.

Q.83. pBR322 is a

a. plasmid.

b. cosmid.

c. bacteriophage.

d. molecular scissors.

Answer:

(a)

Explanation: The plasmid pBR322 is one of the most commonly used E. coli cloning vectors. The name pBR322 denotes - p signifies plasmid, B is Bolivar and R is Rodriguez- the name of the scientists who developed pBR322, and 322 is the numerical designation.

Q.84. Extra-chromosomal DNA molecule is called

a. DNA probe.

b. Ori.

c. plasmid.

d. cosmid.

Answer:

(c)

Explanation: A plasmid is an extra-chromosomal DNA molecule, which is separated from the chromosomal DNA and is capable of replicating independently of the chromosomal DNA.

Q.85.pUC19 is identical to pBR322 except that it contains

a. cDNA.

b. MCS.

c. RLFP.

d. BAC vector.

Answer:

(b)

Explanation: pUC19 is identical to pBR322 except that it contains multiple cloning sites (MCS) arranged in opposite orientations. The MCS has the unique sites for several restriction endonucleases. This vector also replicate only in E. coli.

Q.86. Expand YEp

a. yeast eukaryotic plasmid.

b. yeast expression plasmid.

c. yeast epidermal plasmid.

d. yeast episomal plasmid.

Answer:

(d)

Explanation: Shuttle vectors contain two types of origin of replication, one specific for each host species (E. coli and eukaryotic cells). These are constructed by recombinant DNA techniques e.g., YEp (yeast episomal plasmid).

Q.87.Recombinant Ti plasmids can also be obtained by cloning of a Ti plasmid in

a. pBR322.

b. YEp.

c. pUC19.

d. YAC.

Answer:

(a)

Explanation: These recombinant Ti plasmids can then be used for transformation of higher plants.

Q.88.The ability to transforming human cells into cancerous cells is present in

a. bacteria.

b. retroviruses.

c. yeast episomal plasmid.

d. BAC vector.

Answer:

(b)

Explanation: A virus, which has RNA instead of DNA as a genetic material, is called retroviruses. It has the ability to transform human cells into cancerous cells. These can also be used as vectors of genes.

Q.89. The vector, which contain special signals for the production of proteins, are

a. expression vector.

b. cosmids.

c. BAC vector.

d. shuttle vector.

Answer:

(a)

Explanation: Expression of cloned gene is carried out by inserting a ‘promotor sequence’ (signal for initiation of transcription), and a ‘terminator sequence’ (that provide signal for termination of transcription).

Q.90. A filamentous phage, which infects E. coli having F pili is

a. pBR322.

b. pUC19.

c. M13.

d. YAC.

Answer:

(c)

Explanation: The M13 phage’s DNA enters the bacterial cell; it is converted into a double- stranded molecule known as the replicative form or RF, which replicates until there are 100 copies in the cell. Finally, single stranded DNA molecules are produced from RF DNA and extrude from the cell as M13 particles.

Q.91.The major advantage of developing vectors based on M13 are that its genome size is

a. less than 10kb in size.

b. less than 20kb in size.

c. more than 10kb in size.

d. more than 20kb in size.

Answer:

(a)

Explanation: M13 is a filamentous phage which infects E. coli having F pili. It consists of single stranded circular DNA molecule having 6407 base pairs and 10 genes in the genome.

Q.92.The cosmid vector is a combination of the COS site of phage lambda and

a. expression vector.

b. BAC vector.

c. shuttle vector.

d. plasmid vector.

Answer:

(d)

Explanation: The simplest cosmid vector contains a plasmid’s origin of replication, a selectable marker, suitable restriction enzyme sites and the lambda ‘cos’ site.

Q.93.YAC vector is capable of carrying a large DNA fragment

a. up to 1 Mb.

b. more than 1 Mb

c. more than 10Kb.

d. more than 20Kb.

Answer:

(b)

Explanation: The yeast artificial chromosome (YAC) vector is capable of carrying a large DNA fragment (up to 2 Mb), but its transformation efficiency is very low. These vectors contain telomeric sequences, the centromere and independently replicating sequences.

Q.94. The YAC is digested by the two restriction enzymes EcoRI and

a. HindIII.

b. TaqI.

c. BamHI.

d. HinfI

Answer:

(c)

Explanation: They contain suitable restriction enzyme sites and genes, which can act as selectable markers in yeast.

Q.95. The host for a BAC carrying cloned DNA is typically a mutant strain of

a. A. tumefaciens.

b. b. coagulans.

c. b. thuringiensis.

d. E. coli.

Answer:

(d)

Explanation: This mutant strain of E. coli is missing the normal restriction and modification system.

Q.96.Gemini viruses comprise a group of

a. single stranded DNA plant viruses.

b. double stranded DNA plant viruses.

c. single stranded DNA animal viruses.

d. double stranded DNA animal viruses.

Answer:

(a)

Explanation: Gemini viruses have single stranded DNA as genetic material, which causes important diseases in cassava, maize, and other cereals.

Q.97. CaMV has a double stranded DNA molecule of

a. 1kbp size.

b. 4kbp size.

c. 8kbp size.

d. 12kbp size.

Answer:

(c)

Explanation: The virus spreads systematically throughout the plant in a very high copy number reaching up to 105 virus particles per cell. These features make CaMV a suitable vector for transformation of higher plants.

Q.98. The first cloning experiment involving mammalian cells in 1979 was done with the help of

a. CaMV.

b. SV40.

c. adenovirus.

d. papillomavirus.

Answer:

(b)

Explanation: A vector based on Simian Virus 40 (SV40) was used in the first cloning experiment involving mammalian cells in 1979. Presently, retroviral vectors are the most commonly used vectors for cloning genes in mammalian cells.

Q.99. The most commonly used vectors for cloning genes in mammalian cells is

a. CaMV.

b. TMV.

c. gemini viruses.

d. retroviral vectors

Answer:

(d)

Explanation: A vector based on Simian Virus 40 (SV40) was used in the first cloning experiment involving mammalian cells in 1979. Since 1979, a number of vectors based on other types of viruses like Adenovirus and Papilloma virus have been used to clone genes in mammals. Presently, retroviral vectors are the most commonly used vectors for cloning genes in mammalian cells.

Q.100.In bacterial cells the gene coding for alpha-galactosidase produces

a. blue color.

b. red color.

c. green color.

d. yellow color.

Answer:

(a)

Explanation: The gene coding for alpha-galactosidase produces blue colors in bacterial cells. When a foreign gene in inserted into this gene, it is inactivated. This is known as insertional inactivation.