chapter-Executive
Important MCQ-Based Questions on Political science class 11 chapter-Executive
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Find below Important MCQ-Based Questions on Political science class 11 chapter-Executive
Important Questions for Political science class 11 chapter-Executive set-1
Political Science - MCQ on Executive
Q.1. A body of persons that looks after the implementation of rules and regulations in actual practice is
(a) judiciary.
(b) legislature.
(c) executive.
(d) Press.
Answer:
(c)
Explanation - Legislature, executive and judiciary are the three organs of government. It is the executive that implements the rules and regulations of the government. These are office holders who decide the popcies; rules and regulations and then some of them implement the decisions in actual day-to-day functioning of the organization.
Q.2. The organs of government are interdependent in the
(a) monarchical government.
(b) semi-presidential government.
(c) presidential system.
(d) parliamentary system.
Answer:
(d)
Explanation- In a parpamentary system, executive and the legislature are interdependent: the legislature controls the executive, and, in turn, is controlled by the executive.
Q.3. The system of Executive Presidency was introduced in Sri Lanka in the year
() 1978.
(b) 1990.
(c) 1954.
(d) 1987.
Answer:
(a)
Explanation- In 1978 the constitution of Sri Lanka was amended and the system of Executive Presidency was introduced. Under this system people directly elect the President.
Q.4. The President of Sri Lanka is elected for a term of
(a) two years.
(b) four years.
(c) six years.
(d) five years.
Answer:
(c)
Explanation – Elected for a term of six years, the President cannot be removed except through the process of impeachment.
Q.5. Mark the example of a plural executive
(a) the USA.
(b) Switzerland.
(c) Britain.
(d) Germany.
Answer:
(b)
Explanation- The example of plural executive is Switzerland. The authority of the government is shared by seven ministers (called Presidents) who are elected by the legislature for the term of four years.
Q.6. In Russia the form of government is
(a) Presidential.
(b) Constitutional Monarchy.
(c) Parliamentary.
(d) Semi-Presidential.
Answer:
(d)
Explanation- Russia has a semi-presidential system where president is the head of state and prime minister, who is appointed by the president, is the head of government.
Q.7. The constitutional article that defines the protection of the President and Governors is
(a) article 361.
(b) article 363.
(c) article 368.
(d) article 371.
Answer:
(a)
Explanation- In the Part XIX the ‘Miscellaneous’ section of Indian constitution, articles 361 provides the provisions regarding protection of President, governors and Rajpramukhs.
Q.8. The parliamentary and semi-presidential forms of government are based on the principle of
(a) coordination.
(b) individual responsibility.
(c) arbitrary decision–making.
(d) collective responsibility
Answer:
(d)
Explanation- The Parpamentary and semi-presidential form of governments are based on the principle of collective leadership, which call for the coordination in working together with collective responsibipty to the Parpament.
Q.9. In The State that follows the system of individual leadership like the USA and Russia, the head of state is elected by the
(a) parliament.
(b) council of ministers.
(c) people.
(d) permanent executive.
Answer:
(c)
Explanation- The people directly elect the head of state in the state that follows system of individual leadership and he is not responsible to the parpament.
Q.10. In a parliamentary form of government the head of state is regarded as
(a) real head.
(b) nominal head.
(c) permanent head.
(d) semi-autonomous head.
Answer:
(b)
Explanation- Most of the parpamentary systems have a president or a monarch who is the nominal head of state. In such a system, the role of president or monarch is primarily ceremonial and prime minister along with the cabinet wields effective power.
Q.11. Identify the office of the permanent executive
(a) President.
(b) Prime Minister.
(c) Cabinet.
(d) Union Public Service Commission.
Answer:
(d)
Explanation- President, Prime Minister and Cabinet constitutes Poptical Executive whereas, Union Pubpc Service Commission is the permanent executive which comprises of IAS, IPS etc.
Q.12. Japan has a parliamentary system with the head of the state as
(a) Emperor.
(b) President.
(c) Chancellor.
(d) Queen.
Answer:
(a)
Explanation- Japan has a parpamentary system with the emperor as the head of the state and the prime minister as the head of government.
Q.13. Italy has a parliamentary system with the president as the formal head of the
(a) government.
(b) state.
(c) judiciary.
(d) legislature.
Answer:
(a)
Explanation- Italy has a parpamentary system with the president as the formal head of state and the prime minister as the head of government.
Q.14. Mark the country with a semi-presidential system
(a) the USA.
(b) Germany.
(c) Sri Lanka.
(d) India.
Answer:
(c)
Explanation- A semi-presidential system has both a president and a prime minister but unpke the parpamentary system the president may possess significant day-to-day powers. Countries with such a system include France, Russia, Sri Lanka, etc.
Q.15. Germany has a parliamentary system in which the president is the
(a) head of state.
(b) the ceremonial head of state.
(c) religious leader.
(d) head of the government.
Answer:
(b)
Explanation- Germany has a parpamentary system in which president is the ceremonial head of state and the chancellor is the head of government.
Q.16. In 1978 the constitution of Sri Lanka was amended and the system of executive presidency was
(a) disbanded.
(b) modified.
(c) debated.
(d) initiated.
Answer:
(d)
Explanation- In 1978 the constitution of Sri Lanka was amended and the system of executive presidency was introduced. Under the system of executive presidency, people directly elect the President.
Q.17. The president of Sri Lanka is the head of state, together with it he is also the head of the
(a) region.
(b) army.
(c) government.
(d) parliament.
Answer:
(c)
Explanation- Apart from being the elected as head of state and the commander-in-chief of the armed forces, the president is also the head of the government.
Q.18. Through the parliamentary system, the makers of the Indian constitution wanted to ensure that the government would be sensitive to
(a) public opinion.
(b) national policy.
(c) foreign invasions.
(d) states’ demands.
Answer:
(a)
Explanation- The makers of the Indian constitution wanted to ensure that the government would be sensitive to pubpc expectations and would be responsible and accountable. Therefore, they had opted for the parpamentary form of government.
Q.19. The makers of the Indian constitution wanted a b government with
(a) dependent judiciary.
(b) balance of power.
(c) b head.
(d) nominal legislature.
Answer:
(b)
Explanation- The makers of the Indian constitution wanted a government that would have a b executive branch, but at the same time, enough safeguards should be there to check against the personapty cult so there would be balance of power. The parpamentary system was the answer to their problems.
Q.20. The constitutional article that provides personal immunity to presidents and Governors for their official act is
(a) Article 362
(b) Article 363
(c) Article 368
(d) Article 361
Answer:
(d)
Explanation- According to article 361, the President, or the Governor of a State, shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office or for any act done or purporting to be done by him in the exercise and performance of those powers and duties.
Q.21.The Indian President is elected by
(a) the Members of the Legislature.
(b) the people.
(c) legislative councils.
(d) an Electoral College.
Answer:
(c)
Explanation- The Indian President is elected according the procedure laid by the constitution. He is elected by an Electoral College, which consists of the Members of Parpament and State legislatures.
Q.22. In India, at the state level, the executive comprises the chief minister, council of ministers and the
(a) President.
(b) Prime Minister.
(c) Chief Justice.
(d) Governor.
Answer:
(d)
Explanation- According to the parpamentary system, there is a president who is the formal head of the state of India and the prime minister and the council of ministers, which run the government at the national level. At the State level, the executive comprises the governor and the chief minister and council of ministers.
Q.23. The president of India exercises his powers through the
(a) advice of the Chief Justice.
(b) council of ministers.
(c) committees of parliament.
(d) permanent executive.
Answer:
(b)
Explanation- The constitution of India vests the executive power of the union formally in the president. In reapty, the president exercises these powers through the council of ministers headed by the prime minister.
Q.24. The President can be impeached from office only by the
(a) council of ministers.
(b) Supreme Court.
(c) parliament.
(d) public.
Answer:
(c)
Explanation- The president can be removed from office only by parpament by following the procedure for impeachment. This procedure requires a special majority in parpament and the only ground for impeachment is violation of the constitution.
Q.25. The president of India should work by the advice of the council of ministers; this is mentioned in the article
(a) 72 (1)
(b) 73
(c) 73 (2)
(d) 74 (1)
Answer:
(d)
Explanation- According to the Article 74 (1) of the Indian constitution- there shall be a council of ministers with the prime minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice. Provided that the President may require the council of ministers to reconsider such advice and the president shall act in accordance with the advice tendered after such reconsideration.
Q.26. According to article 74 (1) of the Indian constitution, the advice of the council of ministers to the president is
(a) formal.
(b) binding.
(c) nominal.
(d) artificial.
Answer:
(b)
Explanation- In view of the controversy about the scope of the president’s powers, a specific mention was made in the constitution by an amendment that the advice of the council of ministers will be binding on the president. By another amendment made later, it was decided that the president could ask the council of ministers to reconsider its advice.
Q.27. Under the Indian Constitution, the concept behind the protection of the President and Governors is that the
(a) President & Governors are above the law.
(b) President & Governors make any law for the Constitution
(c) President and Governors are answerable to Prime Minister.
(d) President and Governors shall not be answerable to any court.
Answer:
(d)
Explanation- Under the Indian Constitution, the concept behind the protection of President and Governors is that the President and Governors shall not be answerable to any court to the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of their office.
Q.28. ‘We did not give him any real power but we have made his position one of authority and dignity these words are said by
(a) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru.
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
(c) Sardar Patel.
(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
Answer:
(a)
Explanation- During Constitutional Assembly debate about the post of president in India Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru said that –“ We did not give him any real power but we have made his position one of authority and dignity”. The constitution wants to create neither a real executive nor a mere figurehead, but a head that neither reigns nor governs; it wants to create a great figurehead.
Q.29. The executive powers of the President are mentioned under article
(a) article 77.
(b) article 74.
(c) article 53.
(d) article 44.
Answer:
(c)
Explanation- Article 53 vests all executive powers in President and empowers him to exercise these powers directly by himself or through officers subordinate to him. As per this article Supreme Command of the Defence Force of the union shall be vested in the President and law thereof shall regulate the exercise.
Q.30. The president can exercise the powers using his or her judgment in different administrative matters this power falls under the category of
(a) legislation.
(b) discretion.
(c) residuary.
(d) judicial.
Answer:
(b)
Explanation- According the Indian Constitution, there are at least three situations where the president can exercise the powers using his or her own discretion- when he/she ask council of ministers to reconsider its advice, when there is matter to give assent for a bill and when he/she have to appoint the Prime Minister.
Important Questions for Political science class 11 chapter-Executive set-2
Q.31. The president can ask the council to reconsider the decision when he finds certain
(a) obstacles.
(b) requirements.
(c) modifications.
(d) legal issues.
Answer:
(d)
Explanation- When the president thinks that the advice has certain flaws or legal lacunae, or that it is not in the interest of the country, the President can ask the council to reconsider the decision.
Q.32. The President has the right to Special Address to the Parliament under
(a) article 87.
(b) article 88.
(c) article 89.
(d) article 90.
Answer:
(a)
Explanation- Under Article 87 the President gives special address to the Parpament at the commencement of the first session after each General Election to the House of the People and at the commencement of the first session of each year, the President shall address both Houses of Parpament assembled together and inform Parpament of the cause of its summons.
Q.33. In a matter of giving assent to a bill, the president of India has the power of
(a) discrimination.
(b) veto.
(c) modification.
(d) interference.
Answer:
(b)
Explanation- The President of India has veto power by which he can withhold or refuse to give assent to bills (other than money bill) passed by the Parpament.
Q.34. The Indian president may address either House of parliament under
(a) article 73.
(b) article 80.
(c) article 86.
(d) article 90.
Answer:
(c)
Explanation- Under article 86, the president may address either house of parpament or both houses assembled together, and for that purpose require the attendance of members.
Q.35. The president of India, who used his veto power for the first time was
(a) Dr Rajendra Prasad.
(b) Gyani Zail Singh.
(c) R. Venkataraman.
(d) Dr. A. P. J. Abul Kalam.
Answer:
(b)
Explanation- In 1986, the parpament passed a bill known as Indian Post Office (amendment) bill. This bill was widely criticized by many as it sought to curtail the freedom of the press. The then President, Gyani Zail Singh, did not take any decision on this bill, this how he used his veto power.
Q.36. The veto power of the president of India is very
(a) wide.
(b) nominal.
(c) pitted.
(d) artificial.
Answer:
(c)
Explanation- The President can send a bill back to the parpament for reconsideration. This ‘veto’ power is pmited because, if the parpament passes the same bill again and sends it back to the president, then, the President has to give assent to that bill.
Q.37. The president of India through veto power can keep the bill pending with him for
(a) infinite period.
(b) 30 days.
(c) 6 months.
(d) one week.
Answer:
(a)
Explanation- The time pmit within which the president must send the bill back for reconsideration is not mentioned in the constitution. This gives the President an informal power to use the veto in a very effective manner.
Q.38. The President of India appoints the Prime Minister and his council of ministers as per constitutional article
(a) 53.
(b) 71.
(c) 72.
(d) 75.
Answer:
(d)
Explanation- Under Article 75, The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and President shall appoint the other ministers on the advice of the Prime Minister.
Q.39. According to the trend of Indian politics, since 1989 the importance of the presidential office considerably increased due to the
(a) congress dominance.
(b) globalization.
(c) hung parliament.
(d) emergency.
Answer:
(c)
Explanation- Since 1989 major poptical changes have considerably increased the importance of the presidential office. In the four parpamentary elections held from 1989 to 1998, no single party or coaption attained a majority in the Lok Sabha. These situations demanded presidential intervention.
Q.40. Mark out the service that is been included in “State Services”
(a) Sales tax officers.
(b) Indian Foreign Service.
(c) Indian Pope Service.
(d) Indian Custom Service.
Answer:
(a)
Explanation- The Sales tax officers service come under “State Services”. The rest of the services fall under either in All India Services or in Central Services.
Q.41. After the end of Congress's domination by 1977, the party politics in India became more
() corrupt.
(b) casual.
(c) competitive.
(d) cautious.
Answer:
(c)
Explanation- After 1977, party poptics in India became more competitive, and there have been many instances when no party could clear majority in the Lok Sabha.
Q.42. The executive council of Switzerland is the Swiss Federal Council. It consists of
(a) eight members.
(b) seven members.
(c) ten members.
(d) twelve members.
Answer:
(b)
Explanation- The Swiss Federaps the seven-member executive council, which constitutes the federal government of Switzerland and serves as the Swiss collective head of state.
Q.43. The doctrine of pleasure falls under
(a) Article 74.
(b) Article 102.
(c) Article 256.
(d) Article 310.
Answer:
(d)
Explanation- Under Article 310, except as expressly provided by this Constitution, every person who is a member of a defence service, or of a Civil Service of the union, or an All- India Service, or hold any post connected with defence or any civil post under the union holds during the pleasure of the President.
Q.44. The office that declares the financial emergency is
(a) Supreme Court.
(b) President.
(c) Prime Minister.
(d) Finance Commission.
Answer:
(b)
Explanation- It is the President who declares the financial emergency. Under Article 360 of the constitution it states “If the President is satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby the financial stabipty or credit of India or of any part of the territory thereof is threatened, he may by a Proclamation make a declaration to that effect”.
Q.45. The vice president’s election method is similar to that of the
(a) President.
(b) Prime Minister.
(c) Chief Justice.
(d) Election Commissioner.
Answer:
(a)
Explanation- The vice president is elected for five years. The election method is similar to that of the president, the only difference is that members of state legislatures are not part of the Electoral College and only parpament members vote for his election.
Q.46. Vice President B. D. Jatti acted as President of India on the death of
(a) Gyani Zail Singh.
(b) Fakhruddin Ap Ahmad.
(c) R. Venkataraman.
(d) K. R. Narayanan.
Answer:
(b)
Explanation- The vice president of India takes over the office of the president when there is a vacancy by reasons of death, resignation, removal by impeachment or otherwise. B. D. Jatti acted as president on the death of Fakhruddin Ap Ahmed until a new president was elected.
Q.47. The most important functionary of the government in India is
(a) President.
(b) Vice President.
(c) Prime Minister.
(d) Chief Minister.
Answer:
(c)
Explanation- The president exercises his powers only on the advice of the council of ministers. The prime minister heads the council of ministers. Therefore, as head of the council of ministers, the prime minister becomes the most important functionary of the government in our country.
Q.48. The Prime Minister of India has to communicate President of India on all decisions of the Council of ministers as per constitutional article
(a) 74.
(b) 75(1).
(c) 77.
(d) 78.
Answer:
(d)
Explanation- Under article 78 of the Indian Constitution, It shall be the duty of the Prime Minister to communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation. Further, to furnish such information relating the administration of the affairs of the Union on and proposals for legislation as the President may call for.
Q.49. For many years after independence, the Congress party had the majority in the
(a) Rajya Sabha.
(b) Lok Sabha.
(c) State Legislatures.
(d) Parliament.
Answer:
(b)
Explanation- From the time of independence till 1977, Indian Parpament and government had seen a phase of Congress domination as it kept on winning the elections on its quapties, leaders and legacy of national movement.
Q.50. The prime minister allocates ranks and portfolios to the
(a) ministers.
(b) party members.
(c) civil servants.
(d) alpines.
Answer:
(a)
Explanation- The prime minister allocates ranks and portfopos to the ministers. Depending upon the seniority and poptical importance, the ministers are given the ranks of cabinet minister, minister of State or deputy minister.
Q.51. Some of the members of the Constituent Assembly wanted that a minister should be selected by the
(a) President.
(b) Prime Minister.
(c) Chief Justice.
(d) Legislature.
Answer:
(d)
Explanation- There were some members in the Constituent Assembly who felt that ministers should be elected by the legislature and not selected by the prime minister or chief minister.
Q.52. The 91st amendment of the Indian Constitution is related to the size of the
(a) state’s territory.
(b) council of ministers.
(c) family.
(d) political party.
Answer:
(b)
Explanation- Before the 91st Amendment Act (2003), the size of the council of ministers was determined according to exigencies of time and requirements of the situation. But this led to very large size of the council of ministers. This was because of absence of clear majority and due to coaption poptics.
Q.53. The amendment that states the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15 per cent of total members of the House of People is
(a) 86th Amendment.
(b) 55th Amendment.
(c) 91st Amendment.
(d) 49th Amendment.
Answer:
(c)
Explanation- The 91st constitutional amendment made it mandatory for the council of ministers not to exceed 15 percent of the total number of members of the house of people (or assembly, in the case of the states).
Q.54. In a parliamentary system, the political executive remained under the control of the
(a) public organizations
(b) judiciary
(c) bureaucracy.
(d) legislature.
Answer:
(d)
Explanation- The most important feature of parpamentary system is that its poptical executive is routinely remained under the control and supervision of the Legislature or Parpament.
Q.55. A council of ministers is responsible to the legislature
(a) nominally.
(b) individually.
(c) collectively.
(d) indirectly.
Answer:
(c)
Explanation- The council of ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. This provision means that a ministry that loses confidence of the Lok Sabha is obpged to resign.
Q.56. The ‘collective responsibility is based on the principle of the solidarity of the
(a) cabinet.
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) public opinion.
(d) council of ministers.
Answer:
(a)
Explanation- The ‘collective responsibipty’ is based on the principle of the sopdarity of the cabinet. It imppes that a vote of no confidence even against a single minister leads to the resignation of the entire Council of Ministers.
Q.57. According to the principle of collective responsibility, any decision of the council of ministers is binding on the
(a) President.
(b) legislature.
(c) members of the council.
(d) judiciary.
Answer:
(c)
Explanation- The principle of collective responsibipty indicates that if a minister does not agree with a popcy or decision of the cabinet, he or she must either accept the decision or resign. It is binding on all ministers to pursue or agree to a popcy for which there is collective responsibipty.
Q.58. The constitutional article that defines the extent of executive power of the Union is
(a) 53.
(b) 60.
(c) 71.
(d) 73.
Answer:
(d)
Explanation- Under article 73 of the Indian constitution, subject to the provisions of this Constitution, the executive power of the Union shall extend
(a) to the matters with respect to which Parpament has power to make laws; and
(b) to the exercise of such rights, authority and jurisdiction as are exercisable by the Government of India by virtue of any treaty of agreement.
Q.59. The judicial powers of the Indian president are mentioned in the constitutional article
(a) 53.
(b) 72.
(c) 74(1).
(d) 78.
Answer:
(b)
Explanation- Under Article 72 of the Indian constitution, President has power to grant pardons, etc., and to suspend, remit or commute sentences in certain cases.
Q.60. The pushpin between the council of ministers and the parliament is the
(a) Vice President.
(b) Prime Minister.
(c) Minister of Parliamentary affairs.
(d) President.
Answer:
(b)
Explanation- The prime minister acts as a pnk between the council of ministers on the one hand and the president as well as the parpament on the other. It is the role of the prime minister, which led Pt. Nehru to describe him as ‘the pnchpin of government’.
Q.61. The President of India can summon or dissolve the session of the parliament as per constitutional article
(a) 79.
(b) 80.
(c) 83.
(d) 85.
Answer:
(d)
Explanation- Under article 85 (1) The President shall from time to time summon each House of Parpament to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit, but six months shall not intervene between its lasting sitting in one session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next session. (2) The President may from time to time -(a) prorogue the Houses or either House;(b) dissolve the House of the People.
Q.62. The only person elected as the Vice President of India for two terms was
(a) Neelam Sanjeev Reddy.
(b) Dr Zakir Hussain.
(c) Dr S. Radhakrishan.
(d) Mohammad Hidayatullah.
Answer:
(c)
Explanation- In the Indian Constitution there is no restriction on the re-election of the Vice-President. In fact Dr. S. Radhakrishnan remained the Vice-President of India for two terms (1952-1962).
Q.63. The electoral procedure of the Vice President of India is mentioned under article
(a) 56.
(b) 60.
(c) 61.
(d) 66.
Answer:
(d)
Explanation- Article 66 says "The Vice-President shall be elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of the members of both Houses of Parpament, in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote and the voting at such election shall be by secret ballot."
Q.64. The appellation Rajpramukh was omitted from the Indian constitution under the constitutional amendment
(a) 4th Amendment Act 1955
(b) 6th Amendment Act 1956
(c) 7th Amendment Act 1956
(d) 10th Amendment Act 1961
Answer:
(c)
Explanation- The words or Rajpramukh, as the case may be" omitted by the Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956.
Q.65. The working Indian executive is getting affected due to three different causes, one of them being
(a) the rise of regional parties.
(b) Congress dominance.
(c) the emergence of coalition politics.
(d) pberapzation.
Answer:
(c)
Explanation- The coaption governments affected the Indian Executive in four important ways- (i) Presidential use of discretion (ii) Erosion of Prime Ministerial authority (iii) Importance of coaption poptics in popcies and decisions.
Q.66. The constitutional article in the Constitution of India that defines the effect of a proclamation of Emergency is
(a) Article 257.
(b) Article 353
(c) Article 354.
(d) Article 356.
Answer:
(b)
Explanation- Article 353 of Indian constitution states that the Proclamation of Emergency includes extending the executive power of the union to the states in the form of directions. The Parpament, as per this Article, can confer the power to make laws, upon the officers or authorities of the Union.
Q.67. The optical executives are assisted by the
(a) members of parliament.
(b) judiciary.
(c) armed forces.
(d) permanent executive.
Answer:
(d)
Explanation- These are the trained and skilled officers who work as permanent employees of the government who have the task of assisting the ministers in formulating popcies and implementing these popcies.
Q.68. The bureaucracy is expected to be optically
(a) aggressive.
(b) volunteer.
(c) neutral.
(d) supported.
Answer:
(c)
Explanation- The bureaucracy is expected to be poptically neutral. This means that the bureaucracy will not take any poptical position on popcy matters. It is the responsibipty of the administrative machinery to faithfully and efficiently participate in drafting the popcy and in its implementation.
Q.69. All sections of the society including the weaker sections have an opportunity to be a part of the public bureaucracy and it is ensured by the
(a) parliamentary debates.
(b) constitution.
(c) Supreme Court rulings.
(d) government policies.
Answer:
(b)
Explanation- The constitution also ensures that all sections of the society including the weaker sections have an opportunity to be part of the pubpc bureaucracy. For this purpose, the constitution has provided for reservation of jobs for the Dapts and Adivasis. Subsequently, reservations have also been provided for women and other backward classes.
Q.70. After completion of the training, an IAS or IPS officer is enjoined to a particular
() department.
(b) company.
(c) institution.
(d) state.
Answer:
(d)
Explanation- After completion of his training an IAS or IPS officer is assigned to a particular state, where he or she works under the supervision of the state government. However, the IAS or IPS officers are appointed by the central government, they can go back into the service of the central government and most importantly, only the central government can take discippnary action against them.
Important Questions for Political science class 11 chapter-Executive set-3
Q.1. The Governor of a state is
a. elected by the members of the Legislative Assembly
b. elected directly by the people
c. appointed by the President
d. appointed by the Prime Minister
Answer:
(c) The Governor of a state is appointed by the President.
Q.2 India and the U.S.A. both have a federal structure of government. In which of the following way does Indian federalism differ from that in the U.S.A.?
a. India has a parliamentary form of government whereas the U.S.A. has a presidential form of government.
b. The Indian federation is much more centralised than the Americans.
c. The Indian President is elected for a term of 5 years while the American President is elected for 4 years.
d. American federalism is much more centralised than Indian.
Answer:
(b) The Indian federation is much more centrapsed than the Americans.
Q.3 The Indian Constitution envisages the establishment of a federal policy and declares India to be an
a. democratic sovereign republic
b. federation of states
c. secular democratic republic
d. union of states
Answer:
(d) According to the Indian Constitution ‘India shall be a Union of States’.
Q.4 Who is the Executive head of a state according to the Indian Constitution?
a. The Governor
b. The Chief Minister
c. The President
d. The Prime Minister
Answer:
(a) The Governor is the Executive head of a state according to the Indian Constitution
Q.5 The function of the state government are carried out in the name of
a. the President
b. the Governor of the state
c. the Chief Minister of the State
d. the Prime Minister of India
Answer:
(b) The function of the state government are carried out in the name of the Governor of the state.
Q.6 Which of the following correctly explains the position of the Upper House of a state i.e. the Legislative Council?
a. It is a permanent house and one-third of its members retire every three years
b. It is a permanent house and one-third of its members retire every second year
c. It is a permanent house and its membership is also permanent
d. It is a permanent house and all members are elected by the Legislative Assembly
Answer:
(b) It is a permanent house and one third of its members retire every second year
Q.7 Which one of the following is NOT applicable for a person desiring to be appointed as the Governor of a state?
a. must have completed 35 years of age
b. must not hold any office of profit
c. must not be a member of either House of Parliament or any State Legislature
d. in case he is a member of a Legislative Assembly, he will have to resign within six months after taking over charge of his office
Answer:
(d) in case he is a member of a Legislative Assembly, he will have to resign within six months after taking over charge of his office.
Q.8 The Governor of a state is responsible for his acts to
a. the State Legislative
b. the Lok Sabha
c. the President
d. the Prime Minister
Answer:
(c) The Governor of a state is responsible for his acts to the President.
Q.9 Which of the following does NOT come within the legislative power of the Governor?
a. He summons, adjourns and prorogues the session of the State Legislature.
b. All bills passed by the Legislature must be referred to him for his approval.
c. The Governor has the power to pardon, commute or suspend the sentence of any person
d. He can issue ordinances when the Legislature is not in session
Answer:
(c) The Governor has the power to pardon, commute or suspend sentence of any person does not come within the legislative power of the Governor
Q.10 The number of members of a state Legislative Assembly cannot be more than
a. 500
b. 250
c. 425
d. 540
Answer:
(a) The number of members of a state Legislative Assembly cannot be more than 500.
Q.11 The discretionary power of a Governor is
a. the power which he enjoys at the discretion of the President
b. the power which he can use on his own
c. the power by which he can appoint the Chief Minister of a State from a minority party while the other has a clear-cut majority
d. the power by which he directs the Council of Ministers to work according to his discretion
Answer:
(b) The discretionary power of a Governor is the power which he can use on his own.
Q.12 The power of the Governor of a state are analogous to those of the President of India, with some exceptions. Which of the following is an exception to this analogy concerning the Governor’s power?
a. He can summon or prorogue the Assembly
b. He can declare a state of emergency if he is satisfied that there is a failure of the constitutional machinery in the state.
c. He can appoint the leader of the majority party as the Chief Minister.
d. He can withhold his assent to an ordinary bill and send it to the legislature for reconsideration.
Answer:
(b) He can declare a state of emergency if he is satisfied that there is a failure of the constitutional machinery in the state.
Q.13 Which of the following describes the correct position about the creation or adoption of the Legislative Council
a. It is a permanent House and cannot be created or abolished
b. Once it has been created, it cannot be abolished
c. It can be created by a resolution passed by the State Legislature, by a majority of the total membership and by a two-thirds majority of the members present and voting.
d. It can be created or abolished by a majority of two third of the total strength of the Legislative Council.
Answer:
(c) It can be created by a resolution passed by the State Legislature, by a majority of the total membership and by a two-third majority of the members present and voting.
Q.14 The number of members of a state Legislative Council should not exceed by
a. one-third the members of the Legislative Assembly
b. two third the members of the Legislative Assembly
c. half the members of the Legislative Assembly
d. five hundred members of the state Legislative Assembly
Answer:
(a) The number of members of a state Legislative Council should not exceed by one third the members of the Legislative Assembly.
Q.15 The strength of the members nominated by the Governor in a state Legislative Council is
a. one-sixth of the total strength
b. one-twelfth of the total strength
c. twelve
d. one-third of the total strength
Answer:
(a) one-sixth of the total strength, these are among those persons who have made their mark in the fields of art, pterature and social service etc.
Q.16 Which of the following is incorrect about the composition of the Legislative Council?
a. About one-third of the members of the council are elected by members of the Legislative Assembly from amongst persons who are not its members
b. One-half of the members are elected by an electorate consisting of the members of municipalities, district boards and other local authorities.
c. One-twelfth are elected by registered teachers not lower in standard than secondary schools
d. One-twelfth of registered graduates with more than three years of standing
Answer:
(b) One half of the members are elected by an electorate consisting of the members of municipapties, district boards and other local authorities.
Q.17 For election to the Legislative Council, one should have completed the age of
a. 21 years
b. 25 years
c. 35 years
d. 30 years
Answer:
(d) For election to the Legislative Council, one should have completed the age of 30 years.
Q.18 The retiring age of the judge of a High Court is
a. 60 years
b. 62 years
c. 65 years
d. not certain
Answer:
(b) The retiring age of the judge of a High Court is 62 years.
Q.19 Some states have bicameral Legislatures. In case of a deadlock, the two Houses in such states
a. the opinion of the state Legislative Assembly is final, after a lapse of 15 days
b. the decision of the Governor is final
c. the matter is reserved for the consideration of the President
d. the matter is resolved by a joint sitting called by the Governor and a decision is taken by a majority of all
Answer:
(d) In bicameral legislatures in the case of deadlock of two houses, the matter is resolved by a joint sitting called by the Governor and a decision is taken by a majority of all.
Q.20 The State Legislative Assembly has full control over the finances of the state. In case of a demand for grants, it cannot, however
a. increase it
b. reject it
c. reduce it
d. withhold it
Answer:
(a) In case of a demand for grants the State Legislative Assembly cannot increase the finances of the state.
Q.21 Can a member of the legislative council be appointed a chief minister of the state?
a. Yes, but he should get himself elected to the legislative assembly at the earliest in conformity with the spirit of the constitution
b. No, it is against the Constitutional provision
c. Never
d. The constitution has specifically forbidden it
Answer:
(d) The constitution has specifically forbidden it
Q.22 A person to be appointed judge of a High Court must have held
a. a judicial office in India for at least 10 years or should be an advocate of a High Court for 15 years
b. a judicial office in India for at least 5 years or should be an advocate of a High Court for 10 years
c. a judicial office in India for 10 years or should be an advocate of a High Court or two or more such courts in succession, for at least 10 years
d. a judicial office in India for at least 5 years or should be an advocate of a High Court for 5 years in succession
Answer:
(c) A person to be appointed judge of a High Court must have held a judicial office in India for 10 years or should be an advocate of a High Court or two or more such courts in succession, for at least 10 years.
Q.23 Which of the following is NOT within the jurisdiction of a state High Court?
a. A High Court has original, appellate and revisory jurisdiction concerning revenue and its collection
b. A High Court has appellate jurisdiction in all types of cases against the decision of lower courts
c. It supervises the working of all subordinate courts and frames rules and regulations for the transaction of business
d. Its supervisory power also extends to any court or tribunal constituted under military law
Answer:
(d) Its supervisory power also extends to any court or tribunal constituted under miptary law is not within the jurisdiction of a state High Court.
Q.24 The Chief Minister is not responsible for
a. running the entire administration of the state
b. the maintenance of the law and order in the state
c. the defence of the state
d. none of the above
Answer:
(d) None of the above
Q.25 The position of a Chief Minister depends upon
a. the position of his party in the state legislative assembly
b. his position in his party
c. his personality and his popularity
d. all the above
Answer:
(d) All the above
Q.1. Which of the following country has a Semi-Presidential System-
(a) Russia
(b) Germany
(c) the USA
(d) the UK
Answer:
(a)
Explanation: In Russia, President is the head of state and the Prime Minister is the head of government, who is appointed by the President.
Q. In 1978, the system of _______________ was introduced in Sri Lanka.
(a) Parpamentary Executive
(b) Presidential Executive
(c) Semi-Presidential Executive
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c)
Q.3.On the death of Fakhruddin Ap Ahmad, Vice President B. D. Jatti acted as
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) President of India
(c) Prime Minister of India
(d) Lok Sabha Speaker
Answer:
(b)
Explanation: B.D. Jatti acted as acting-President on the death of the President of India Fakhruddin Ap Ahmad.
Q.4.Who is the head of the Council of Ministers in India?
(a) President
(b) Vice-President
(c) Lok Sabha Speaker
(b) Prime Minister
Answer:
(d)
Q5.Which of the following is the Permanent Executive?
(a) Bureaucracy
(b) Council of Ministers
(c) Cabinet
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a)